The dorsoplantar view is part of a three view series examining the phalanges, metatarsals and tarsal bones that make up the foot. This view demonstrates the location and extent of fractures in the foot, joint space abnormalities, soft tissue effusions and is the frontal view for the examination of foreign bodies.
The bases of the metatarsals and the tarsal bones are the most reliable rotation indicator on the DP view. If the foot is over rotated externally, the metatarsal bases will be heavily superimposed whilst the tuberosity of the navicular bone can be seen in profile. Over rotation internally will open up the metatarsal bases and the resultant image will bear close resemblance to the medial oblique projection. In the scenario where the DP is ordered to query a foreign body, do not angle the x-ray beam to mimic the arch as this will result in elongation of the foreign body in question. In trauma, the patient may not be able to flex the affected knee to the desired angle. In this case, a triangular wedge can be placed under the foot. The same principle of angling posteriorly to mimic arch applies. With the foot resting at 10-15° less of an angle is required.
The medial oblique projection is part of the three view series examining the phalanges, metatarsals and tarsal bones that make up the foot. This view demonstrates the location and extent of fractures in the foot and joint space abnormalities. It is also used in the determination of osteomyelitis and examination of foreign bodies.
The metatarsal and tarsal bones are the most reliable rotation indicator. If the foot is over rotated the base of the 5th metatarsal will be superimposed by the tubercle of the 4th metatarsal. If the foot is under rotated the bases of the 4th and 5th metatarsals will overlap; the image may have a closer resemblance to the DP projection.
1 Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process? A. Avulsion fracture B. Torus fracture C. Comminuted fracture D. Compound fracture 2 To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned A. 45 degrees oblique, affected side up. B. 45 degrees oblique, affected side down. C. 25 degrees oblique, affected side up. D. 25 degrees oblique, affected side down. B. 3  Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in Figure 2–26? The acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib. This projection is performed to evaluate the scapula. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only Figure 2–26. 4 Impingement on the wrist's median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as A. carpal boss syndrome B. carpal tunnel syndrome C. carpopedal syndrome D. radioulnar syndrome B. 5 Which of the following shoulder projections can be used to evaluate the lesser tubercle in profile? A. External rotation position B. Internal rotation position C. Neutral rotation position D. Inferosuperior axial position B. 6 Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a 1. torn meniscus. 2. Baker's cyst. 3. torn rotator cuff. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 7 For the AP projection of the scapula, the patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body. patient's elbow is flexed. exposure is made during quiet breathing. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 8 Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the 1. subscapularis. 2. infraspinatus. 3. teres minor. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 9 In the AP projection of an asthenic patient whose knee measures less than 19 cm from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to tabletop, the CR should be directed A. perpendicularly B. 5 degrees medially C. 5 degrees cephalad D. 5 degrees caudad 10 Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is (are) correct? Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 11 Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus? Intertubercular groove Capitulum Coronoid fossa A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 12 The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the A. distal radius. B. distal ulna. C. scaphoid. D. trapezium. 13 A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an) A. Hill-Sachs defect. B. Bankart lesion. C. rotator cuff tear. D. adhesive capsulitis. 14 Use your mouse to drag the following bony parts into order (A–D) from most proximal to most distal A. Linea aspera B. Intertrochanteric crest C. Popliteal surface D. Fovea capitis D. Fovea capitis B. Intertrochanteric crest A. Linea aspera C. Popliteal surface 15 In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5° cephalad to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space? A. Lateral femoral condyle B. Medial femoral condyle C. Patella D. Tibial eminence B. 16 Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm? The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally. The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed. The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 17 n Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 7? Figure 2–29. A. Medial border B. Lateral border C. Inferior angle D. Superior angle 18 To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees A. toward the affected side B. away from the affected side C. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position D. with the arm in external rotation A. 19 Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch? A. Mediolateral B. Lateromedial C. Lateral weight-bearing D. 30-degree medial oblique C. 20 Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees? A. AP recumbent B. Lateral recumbent C. AP erect D. Medial oblique 21 The intertrochanteric crest is located on the A. proximal posterior femur. B. proximal anterior femur. C. distal posterior femur. D. distal anterior femur. A. 22 What projection was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2–41? Figure 2–41. A. AP, internal rotation B. AP, external rotation C. AP, neutral position D. AP axial 23 Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur? Patellar surface Intertrochanteric crest Linea aspera A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 24 What does the number 8 in Figure 6–14 identify? Figure 6–14. A. Medial malleolus B. Lateral malleolus C. Medial cuneiform D. Talus 25 In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant) Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston) A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 only 26 With the patient positioned as shown in Figure 6–13, how should the CR be directed to best demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? Figure 6–13. A. Perpendicular to the popliteal depression B. 40 degrees caudad to the popliteal depression C. Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur D. 40 degrees cephalad to the popliteal depression B. 27 To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2–31, the radiographer should Figure 2–31. A. flex the knee more acutely B. flex the knee less acutely C. angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad D. angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees caudad C. 28 AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula following inversion or eversion injuries to demonstrate a ligament tear A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 29 Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? A. AP B. External rotation C. Internal rotation D. Neutral position 30 Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot? A. Invert the foot. B. Evert the foot. C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly. D. Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly. C. 31 What is the structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–37? Figure 2–37. A. Trapezium B. Scaphoid C. Ulnar styloid 32 Which of the following is (are) located on the distal aspect of the humerus? 1. Capitulum 2. Intertubercular groove 3. Coronoid fossa A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 33 Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm? 1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally. 2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed. 3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 34 Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau? Intercondyloid fossa Tibial condyles Tibial tuberosity A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 35 Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 36 All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except A. the capitulum. B. the trochlea. C. the tubercles. D. the epicondyles. 37 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2–12? Figure 2–12. The patient is placed in an RAO position. The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR. The acromion process is free of superimposition. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 38 The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the 1. transverse arch. 2. longitudinal arch. 3. oblique arch. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 39 In Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 3? Figure 2–29. A. Acromion process B. Scapular spine C. Coracoid process D. Acromioclavicular joint 40 Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed A. eversion B. inversion C. abduction D. adduction 41 The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid: 1. elevate hand and wrist 20°. 2. place wrist in ulnar deviation. 3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers). A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 42 Which of the following correctly identifies the radial styloid process in the illustration in Figure A? Figure A. Reproduced with permission from Saia DA. Radiography: Program Review and Examination Preparation, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1999. A. Number 1 B. Number 4 C. Number 10 D. Number 11 43 Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand? A. Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees. B. Use a support sponge for the phalanges. C. Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR. D. Use ulnar flexion. A. 44 Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations? A. Barium examinations B. Spine radiography C. Skull radiography D. Emergency and trauma radiography D. 45 Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm? A. Bicipital groove projection B. Superoinferior lateral C. Inferosuperior axial D. Transthoracic lateral 46 Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the atlantoaxial joint radioulnar joint temporomandibular joint A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 only 47 The best projection to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the femoropatellar articulation is the A. AP knee. B. PA knee. C. tangential ("sunrise") projection. D. tunnel view. C. 48 Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2–7? Figure 2–7. A. medial epicondyle B. trochlea C. capitulum D. olecranon process 49 What is the structure labeled number 2 in Figure 2–37? Figure 2–37. A. Base of the 2nd metacarpal B. Pisiform C. Trapezium D. Trapezoid 50 Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal recorded detail? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral 51 The structure labeled number 4 in Figure 2–41 is the Figure 2–41. A. acromion process B. coracoid process C. coronoid process D. glenoid process 52 In the lateral projection of the scapula, the vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 53 The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is A. cephalad B. proximal C. distal D. lateral 54 Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation? A. AP B. 90 degrees mediolateral C. 45-degree internal rotation D. 45-degree external rotation C. 55 Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? Medial carpals Lateral carpals Scaphoid A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 56 All the following can be associated with the distal radius except A. head. B. styloid process. C. ulnar notch. D. radioulnar joint. 57 What is the best position/projection to demonstrate the longitudinal arch of the foot? A. Mediolateral B. Lateromedial C. Mediolateral weight-bearing lateral D. Lateromedial weight-bearing lateral D. 58 Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions? 1. supine flexion 45° (Merchant) 2. prone flexion 90° (Settegast) 3. prone flexion 55° (Hughston) A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 only 59 The term varus refers to A. turned outward B. turned inward C. rotated medially D. rotated laterally 60 All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except A. popliteal surface B. intercondyloid fossa C. intertrochanteric line D. linea aspera C. 61 Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal? A. First cuneiform B. Third cuneiform C. Navicular D. Cuboid 62 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images shown in Figure 2–33? Figure 2–33A&B. Image A is positioned in internal rotation. Image B is positioned in internal rotation. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only 63 Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Lateral humerus A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 64 Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? Knee Intervertebral joints Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 65 Which of the labeled bones in Figure 6–14 identifies the tarsal navicular? Figure 6–14. A. Number 2 B. Number 3 C. Number 6 D. Number 7 66 Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that the epicondyles be parallel to the IR. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 67 To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, the required exposure(s) must include epicondyles perpendicular to the IP hand pronated hand supinated as much as possible A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 68 Which of the following correctly identifies the head of the ulna in the illustration in Figure 6–22? Figure 6–22. A. Number 3 B. Number 4 C. Number 5 D. Number 9 69 Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by trauma or other pathology greater than 90-degree flexion less than 90-degree flexion A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only 70 All the following are posterior structures except A. the linea aspera. B. the intertrochanteric line. C. the popliteal surface. D. the intercondyloid fossa. B. 71 With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? A. Fifth metacarpal B. First metacarpal C. Distal radius D. Distal ulna 72 Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones? A. Distal interphalangeal joints B. Proximal interphalangeal joints C. Metacarpals D. Radial styloid process D. 73 Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa? A. AP B. Lateral C. Medial oblique D. Lateral oblique 74 Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? Fractured lateral malleolus Fractured medial malleolus Fractured posterior tibia A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 75 Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? AP humerus Lateral forearm Internal rotation shoulder A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 76 In the AP projection of the ankle, the plantar surface of the foot is vertical. fibula projects more distally than the tibia. calcaneus is well visualized. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 77 Which of the following correctly identifies the letter T in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13? Figure 7–13. A. Gliding joint B. Pivot joint C. Diarthrotic joint D. Amphiarthrotic joint 78 The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand? A. Medial B. Lateral C. Radial D. Volar 79 Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2–16. Figure 2–16 A. Lateral condyle B. Lateral epicondyle C. Medial condyle D. Medial epicondyle 80 Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? Clavicular body Acromioclavicular joint Sternocostal joint A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 81 Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation? A. Lateral skull B. PA chest C. AP pelvis D. PA hand 82 note icon Note Attached user flagged icon Flagged answered? Question 1 answered? Question 2 answered? Question 3 answered? 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Question 94 answered? Question 95 answered? Question 96 answered? Question 97 answered? Question 98 answered? Question 99 answered? Question 100 answered? Question 101 answered? Question 102 answer 83 All the following can be associated with the distal ulna except A. head. B. radioulnar joint. C. styloid process. D. trochlear notch. 84 When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, A. the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures. B. the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular to IR. C. the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR parallel to the humerus. D. the AP projection is eliminated from the routine. A. 85 A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? Radial head Capitulum Coronoid process A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 86 Which of the following projections/positions would best demonstrate structure number 6 seen in Figure 7–7? Figure 7–7. A. PA projection B. Lateral projection C. AP external oblique D. AP internal oblique 87 The AP oblique projection (medial rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following? 1. Radial head free of superimposition 2. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa 3. Coronoid process free of superimposition A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 88 Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include epicondyles parallel to the IR lesser tubercle in profile superimposed epicondyles A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 89 In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? A. AP B. Lateral oblique C. Medial oblique D. Lateral 90 In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the talotibial joint is visualized tibiofibular joint is visualized plantar surface should be vertical A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 91 What is the structure indicated by the letter A in Figure 7–3? Figure 7–3. A. greater tubercle B. coronoid process C. coracoid process D. acromion process 92 The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the A. diaphysis B. epiphysis C. metaphysis D. apophysis 93 Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the A. AP projection. B. lateral projection. C. medial oblique projection. D. lateral oblique projection. 94 What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen in Figure 2–3? Figure 2–3. A. Rotate the pelvis slightly forward/anteriorly. B. Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly. C. Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees cephalad. D. Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees caudad. B. 95 Synovial fluid is associated with the A. brain. B. spinal canal. C. peritoneal cavity. D. bony articulations. 96 Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? Bell-Thompson scale Bucky tray Cannula A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 97 What is the anatomic structure indicated by number 3 in the radiograph in Figure 6–20? Figure 6–20. A. Mandibular angle B. Coronoid process C. Zygomatic arch D. Maxillary sinus 98 Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? Talotibial Talocalcaneal Talofibular A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only 99 In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia. patellofemoral joint should be visualized. femoral condyles should be superimposed. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 100 A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate a fracture a foreign body soft tissue A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only 101 Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna? A. AP B. Lateral C. Medial oblique D. Lateral oblique 102 Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition? A. AP oblique, medial rotation B. AP oblique, lateral rotation C. Mediolateral D. Lateral weight-bearing A. 103 The primary center of ossification in long bones is the A. diaphysis. B. epiphysis. C. metaphysis. D. apophysis 104 What is the most superior structure of the scapula? A. Apex B. Acromion process C. Coracoid process D. Superior angle 105 Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? A. Radial flexion/deviation B. Ulnar flexion/deviation C. AP (medial) oblique D. AP (lateral) oblique 106 In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated? A. Lateral oblique foot B. Medial oblique foot C. Lateral foot D. Weight-bearing foot 107 Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true? The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 108 When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 109 Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation? AP humerus Lateral forearm Lateral humerus A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 110 The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the A. periosteum. B. endosteum. C. epiphysis. D. diaphysis. 111 With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? A. Radial head B. Ulnar head C. Coronoid process D. Olecranon process 112 Figure A was made in which of the following positions? Figure A. Reproduced with permission from Saia DA. Radiography: Program Review and Examination Preparation, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1999. A. AP B. Medial oblique C. Lateral oblique D. Partial flexion 113 To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers A. rest on the cassette for immobilization B. must be supported parallel to the IR C. are radiographed in natural flexion D. are radiographed in palmar flexion B. 114 What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor? A. Coracoid B. Coronoid C. Olecranon D. Glenoid 115 In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? A. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot B. Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis C. Medial oblique position of the foot D. Lateral foot B. 116 Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? The heads of the first row of phalanges The cuboid The cuneiforms A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 117 All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? A. AP B. Lateral C. Acute flexion D. AP partial flexion 118 Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile? 1. Epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. Arm in external rotation 3. Humerus in AP position A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 119 The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is A. red marrow B. yellow marrow C. cortical tissue D. cancellous tissue 120 Which of the following articulates with the base of the fifth metatarsal? A. First cuneiform B. Third cuneiform C. Navicular D. Cuboid 121 In which of the following projections was the image in Figure 2–7 made? Figure 2–7. A. AP B. medial oblique C. lateral oblique D. acute flexion 122 Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture? A. Internal and external rotation B. AP and tangential C. AP and AP axial D. AP and scapular Y 123 What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2–22? Figure 2–22. A. Use a perpendicular CR. B. Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad. C. Angle the CR about 30 degrees caudad. D. Angle the MSP 15 degrees toward the affected side. B. 124 In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? A. Closed B. Compound C. Compression D. Depressed 125 Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint? A. Medial oblique 15° to 20° B. Lateral oblique 15° to 20° C. Medial oblique 45° D. Lateral oblique 45° 126 Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? A. AP B. Lateral C. Medial oblique D. Lateral oblique 127 The radiograph shown in Figure 7–12 can be produced with the Figure 7–12. long axis of the plantar surface perpendicular to the IR CR 40 degrees cephalad to the base of the third metatarsal CR 20 degrees cephalad to the talotibial joint A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only 128 Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? The procedure is performed in the erect position. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only 129 All of the following statements regarding the inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder are true, except A. the coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile. B. the arm is abducted about 90° from the body. C. the arm should be in internal rotation. D. the CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla. C. 130 The scapula shown in Figure 2–29 demonstrates Figure 2–29. its posterior aspect its costal surface its sternal articular surface A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 131 A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with A. pathology. B. crepitus. C. trauma. D. metabolism. 132 Use your mouse to drag the following structures into order (A–D) from medial to lateral. A. Coracoid process B. Scapular notch C. Acromion process D. Vertebral border D. Vertebral border B. Scapular notch A. Coracoid process C. Acromion process 133 All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the A. femur. B. tibia. C. fibula. D. mandible. 134 Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 135 Cells concerned with the formation and repair of bone are A. osteoblasts. B. osteoclasts. C. osteomas. D. osteons. 136 An axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful 1. when the "cross-table" axiolateral is contraindicated. 2. for patients with bilateral hip fractures. 3. for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 137 Which of the following indicates the scapular costal surface seen in Figure 7–3? Figure 7–3. A. D B. H C. K D. M 138 In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head? A. AP B. External rotation C. Internal rotation D. Neutral position 139 The radiograph shown in Figure 2–15 demonstrates the articulation between the Figure 2–15. talus and the calcaneus calcaneus and the cuboid talus and the navicular A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 140 Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee? Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally. Patella superimposed on distal tibia. CR enters 1/2 in. distal to base of patella. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 141 In the lateral projection of the ankle, the talotibial joint is visualized. talofibular joint is visualized. tibia and fibula are superimposed. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 142 Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the A. AP projection B. lateral projection C. medial oblique projection D. lateral oblique projection 143 Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation? A. Tangential B. AP axial C. Transthoracic lateral D. PA oblique scapular Y 144 Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? A. Ewing sarcoma B. Osgood–Schlatter disease C. Gout D. Exostosis B. 145 Which of the following correctly identifies the letter L in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13? Figure 7–13. A. Hamate B. Lunate C. Scaphoid D. Trapezium 146 Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation? A. AP recumbent, affected shoulder B. AP recumbent, both shoulders C. AP erect, affected shoulder D. AP erect, both shoulders D. 147 Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation? A. AP knee B. Lateral knee C. Tangential patella D. Tunnel view 148 Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb. both joints must be included in long bone studies. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 149 Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise? A. Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees B. Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees C. Medial oblique 45 degrees D. Lateral oblique 45 degrees A. 150 In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, the 1. tibiofibular joint is visualized. 2. talotibial joint is visualized. 3. malleoli demonstrated in profile. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 151 With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate? A. Manubrium B. Coracoid process C. Coronoid process D. Acromion process 152 How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist? A. Extend the fingers. B. Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints. C. Extend the forearm. D. Oblique the metacarpals 45 degrees. B. 153 Which of the labeled bones in Figure A identifies the tarsal navicular? A. Number 2 B. Number 3 C. Number 6 D. Number 7 154 The structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–41 is the Figure 2–41. A. sternoclavicular joint B. acromioclavicular joint C. glenohumeral joint D. acromiohumeral joint 155 Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint? 1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch 2. Between the capitulum and the radial head 3. The proximal radioulnar joint A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 156 With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–2, which of the following will be visualized? Figure 2–2. Intercondyloid fossa Patellofemoral articulation Tangential patella A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 157 For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint? A. 5 degrees caudad B. 10 degrees caudad C. 5 degrees cephalad D. 0 degrees (perpendicular) D. 158 What is the name of the structure indicated as number 5 in Figure 7–7? Figure 7–7. A. Coronoid fossa B. Coracoid fossa C. Olecranon fossa D. Trochlear/semilunar notch 159 Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? Femur Tibia Patella A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 160 The bone labeled number 3 in Figure 7–15 is the Figure 7–15. A. talus B. cuboid C. navicular D. lateral cuneiform 161 The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage? A. Endocrine B. Integumentary C. Skeletal D. Muscular 162 The greater tubercle should be visualized in profile in which of the following? A. AP shoulder, external rotation B. AP shoulder, internal rotation C. AP elbow D. Lateral elbow A. 163 Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include 1. osteoarthritis. 2. osteomalacia. 3. rickets. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 164 The mediolateral projection of the knee shown in Figure 6–1 could best be improved by Figure 6–1. A. rotating the patient forward B. rotating the patient backward C. angling the central ray (CR) about 5 degrees caudad D. angling the CR about 5 degrees cephalad D. 165 Use your mouse to drag the following bony structures into order (A–D) from lateral to medial. A. Trapezoid B. Capitate C. Hamate D. Trapezium D. Trapezium A. Trapezoid B. Capitate C. Hamate 166 Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? Scapular Y projection Inferosuperior axial Transthoracic lateral A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 167 The carpal scaphoid can be demonstrated in which of the following projection(s) of the wrist? PA oblique PA with radial flexion PA with elbow elevated 20 degrees A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 168 In the lateral projection of the foot, the plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR. metatarsals are superimposed. talofibular joint should be visualized. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 169 Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture? Transverse fracture of the radial head Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid Posterior or backward displacement A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 170 To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient A. supine and angle the central ray 30° caudally. B. prone and angle the central ray 30° cephalad. C. supine and angle the central ray 15° cephalad. D. in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle D. 171 In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated? A. Lateral oblique foot B. Medial oblique foot C. Lateral foot D. Weight-bearing foot 172 The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions? A. Scapular Y B. AP scapula C. Medial oblique elbow D. Lateral oblique elbow 173 Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure A is (are) true? 1. The tibial eminences are well visualized. 2. The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles. 3. The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only 174 What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad? A. Axial plantodorsal projection B. Axial dorsoplantar projection C. Lateral projection D. Weight-bearing lateral projection A. 175 Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? A. Radial flexion/deviation B. Ulnar flexion/deviation C. AP (medial) oblique D. AP (lateral) oblique 176 Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid? A. Lateral wrist B. Ulnar flexion/deviation C. Radial flexion/deviation D. Carpal tunnel B. 177 With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated? Figure 2–20. A. Patella B. Patellofemoral articulation C. Intercondyloid fossa D. Tibial tuberosity 178 In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges? A. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes B. Tangential metatarsals/toes C. 30-degree medial oblique foot D. 30-degree lateral oblique foot B. 179 What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint? A. Semilunar/trochlear notch B. Radial head C. Capitulum D. Trochlea 180 Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm? A. PA and medial oblique B. AP and lateral oblique C. PA and lateral D. AP and lateral 181 An AP oblique (lateral rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following? Radial head free of superimposition Capitulum of the humerus Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 |
In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second metatarsals are best seen?
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