What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements at an airport in Class G airspace when conducting takeoffs and landings at night?

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(Refer to figure 45) What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements in an airplane at night when conducting takeoffs and landings at McCampbell Airport (area 1)

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1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport.

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What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

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Two-way communications and transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

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(Refer to figure 54) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is

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left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.

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A military operations area (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of

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separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.

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(Refer to Figure 55.) On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Redbird Field when the control tower is not in operation?

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(Refer to Figure 47.) What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?

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All operations within Class C airspace must be

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in an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

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A turbine-powered or large airplane is required to enter an airport traffic pattern at an altitude of at least

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When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in

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A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions established

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from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S.

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When on the upper glidepath of a 3-bar VASI what would be the colors of the lights?

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The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red.

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Which equipment is required when operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?

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Two-way radio communications and transponder with encoding altimeter.

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A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by

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one white light and three red lights.

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Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?

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What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?

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Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.

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To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must

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contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

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Which transponder code should the pilot of a civilian aircraft never use?

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A military airfield can be identified by

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a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

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What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?

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Holds aircraft short of the runway.

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Local Airport Advisory service is usually available at all airports

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where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.

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Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

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Airport/Facility Directory.

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While in Class G airspace in VFR conditions, what minimum distance from clouds should be maintained when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL, and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?

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1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal.

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(Refer to Figure 55.) At what time of day does the tower shut down at Redbird Field?

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How much time do you have to close a VFR flight plan before search and rescue procedures are initiated?

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One-half hour after your ETA.

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Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace?

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Solo student pilots are authorized to fly in Class B airspace if they meet certain requirements.

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When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?

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3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.

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When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

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Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

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When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on

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When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

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Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

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(Refer to Figure 53.) If you were making an approach to a helicopter landing area that was marked for public use, which diagram would you most likely see?

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Which statement is true regarding wingtip vortices?

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Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft.

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(Refer to figure 55) Select the correct statement concerning Dallas Love Field

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The runway gradient for rwy 18 is less than .3 percent.

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(Refer to Figure 56.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions

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What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?

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Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.

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A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates that

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1,000 feet of runway remain.

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Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is

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How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

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Outward, upward, and around each tip.

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Regulations stipulate that, at an airport located within Class E airspace and at which ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings of airplanes under special VFR are

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authorized if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

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An on-glidepath indication from a tri-color VASI is

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What is the purpose of No Entry sign?

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Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

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How long will a Flight Service Station hold a VFR flight plan past the proposed departure time?

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During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by

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being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

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An airport without a control tower lies within the controlled airspace of an airport with an operating tower. According to regulations, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landing clearance at

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the tower-controlled airport only, as well as to fly through the area.

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Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

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received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

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When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

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Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

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During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

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If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and DME, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is

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Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

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If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white.

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With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

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If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and RNAV, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is

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An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?

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(Refer to Figure 47.) What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?

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What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?

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Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 ft MSL.

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An airplane may be operated in uncontrolled airspace at night below 1,200 ft above the surface under the following conditions:

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Less than 3 miles but more than 1 mile visibility in an airport traffic pattern and within one-half mile of the runway.

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The UNICOM frequency at airports with a control tower is

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While in Class G airspace under day VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and less than 10,000 feet MSL?

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An above-glidepath indication from a tri-color VASI is

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When operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is required to be at least

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What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?

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Denotes entrance to a runway from a taxiway.

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What effect would a crosswind of 5 knots or less have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aircraft that had just taken off?

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The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

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Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including

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the base of the overlying controlled airspace

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While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 ft AGL and at or above 10,000 ft MSL?

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The vertical limit of Class D airspace will normally be designated at

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up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL.

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Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

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the ceiling is at least 5,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more.

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The minimum visibility for VFR flight in Class E airspace increases from 3 to 5 SM beginning at an altitude of

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(Refer to Figure 47.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas of this Class C airspace?

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4,000 feet above airport.

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When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot

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should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

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When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

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Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

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When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

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The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

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If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

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Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

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The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

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(Refer to Figure 47.) What is the radius of the surface area (circle C)?

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If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by

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IR or VR and a four digit number.

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What does a destination sign identify?

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Direction to takeoff runways.

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Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is

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permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity.

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No person may operate an airplane within Class D and E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR unless the

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airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

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Due to the effects of wake turbulence, what minimum separation does ATC provide for a small aircraft landing behind a heavy jet?

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(Refer to Figure 55.) What is the elevation of the DFW VORTAC?

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What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

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Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

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As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

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The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

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to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

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In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

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When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's

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When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

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should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.

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(Refer to Figure 54.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

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Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27.

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(Refer to Figure 47.) Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area?

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What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?

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That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.

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When information is disseminated for a navigational facility, it will be located in

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Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within

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The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?

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